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REPORT COPYRIGHT VIOLATION IN REPLY
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Message Subject
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God is a Woman
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Poster Handle
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niphtrique |
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Post Content
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Jesus called his mother "woman" (John 2).
Why would he do that?
Perhaps, the term "mother" was reserved for someone else.
Connect the dots... or not (your choice).
Quoting: niphtrique A lot has to do with what word used and the translation. Also, how faithfully did his exact words get recorded? If there was another woman he considered mother there isn't mention of it in the New Testament or the other books. It is strange that there are no records about his missing years at all. How faithfully his exact words were recorded is a good question to ask. There is a lot of mentionings of a 'Father'. In the Gospel of John we learn that this 'Father' can give birth. Perhaps these words weren't genuine but invented to make a proper distinction between the two, but that doesn't matter for the point that can be made. Originally, the 'Father' could have been a Mother. And if you don't believe it, you may look up one of the oldest Christian texts outside the Bible, the Odes Of Solomon. Of special interest is ode number 19. It was already there before 100 AD. It probably was even older. To quote it: A cup of milk was offered to me: and I drank it in the sweetness of the delight of the Lord.
The Son is the cup, and He who was milked is the Father.
And the Holy Spirit milked Him: because His breasts were full, and it was necessary for Him that His milk should be sufficiently released.
And the Holy Spirit opened His bosom and mingled the milk from the two breasts of the Father; and gave the mixture to the world without their knowing.Utterly bizarre. It might explain why there is so much evidence of redactions in the Gospels.
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